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Following Cisco 200-310 Dumps 515QAs are all new published by Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 13
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
200-310 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 14
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 15
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
200-310 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
“Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production” is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
and the right level of control
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
200-310 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?
A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for
deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development
B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
information about services which are being considered for future development
C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has
information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
A. A configuration management database (CMDB)
B. A capacity database (CDB)
C. A configuration management system (CMS)
D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
200-310 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:
A. Services and Components
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Components and Business Processes
D. Services, Components and Business Processes
200-310 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Transition
C. Service Design
D. Service Operation
Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a concession?
A. When a product fails to meet its quality criteria
B. When an off-specification is raised by the Senior User
C. When an off-specification is accepted by the Project Board or Change Authority without immediate corrective action
D. When a known error is no longer a problem
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
A stakeholder wishing to make an observation about the project would do what?
A. Ask for it to be included in the Communication Management Strategy
B. Raise an issue
C. Make an entry in the Issue Register
D. Arrange a meeting with a Project Board member
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which product identifies how changes to products will be controlled and where the products will be stored?
A. Product Description
B. Configuration Item Record
C. Configuration Management Strategy
D. Issue Register
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which product is used to record and maintain information regarding any issues that are being managed formally?
A. Configuration Item Record
B. Issue Register
C. Daily Log
D. Risk Register
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
According to PRINCE2, Which of the following would be used to pay for a request for change and possibly any analysis costs?
A. Contingency
B. Tolerance
C. Change budget
D. Risk budget
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which of the following are tasks carried out as part of product-based planning?
1. Write a Project Product Description.
2. Identify activities and dependencies
3. Create a product breakdown structure.
4. Create a product flow diagram
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Where would a Team Manager find information regarding the specific quality required for a product?
A. Product Description
B. Quality Register
C. Quality Management Strategy
D. Checkpoint Report
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
A. Defines the level of quality required for the product
B. Records the quality results of the stage
C. Defines the people or skills required to produce, review and approve the product
D. To understand the detailed nature, purpose, function and appearance of a product
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure?
A. Products to be created in-house
B. Products to be modified
C. Resources required to produce the products
D. Products to be created by an external third party
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which plan is optional depending on the complexity of the project?
A. Project Plan
B. Exception Plan
C. Team Plan
D. Initiation Stage Plan
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence… PRINCE2 recommends three [ ? ] to reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project.
A. Levels of issue
B. Stakeholders
C. Levels of plan
D. Types of risk responses
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which of the following is NOT one of the three levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2?
A. Stage
B. Team
C. Benefits Review
D. Project
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
The period of time for which it is possible to accurately plan in detail is known as?
A. The predicting period
B. The planning horizon
C. The stable schedule
D. The panorama plan
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which of the following shows the scope of a plan?
A. The full content of a product checklist
B. The related product breakdown structure
C. The composition of a Project Product Description
D. All of the project’s Configuration Item Records
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which product does the Project Board use as a base against which to monitor project progress on a stage
by stage basis?
A. Stage Plan
B. Project Plan
C. Programme Plan
D. Benefits Review Plan
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
According to PRINCE2, it is seldom desirable, or possible, to plan an entire project in detail at the start. Which one of the following is given as a reason for this?
A. It can be difficult to predict the actual performance of resources
B. All aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend
C. Sufficient detail is only known once the relevant stage has begun
D. The supplier is unlikely to comprehend the detailed schedule
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Why does PRINCE2 recommend having three levels of plan?
A. The more levels there are, the more stable the plan detail will become
B. Aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend
C. To reflect that there are 3 key stakeholder project interests
D. To reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in the project, stage and team
200-310 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following Plans can be approved by the Project Manager?
A. Project Plan
B. Team Plan
C. Exception Plan at stage-level
D. Stage Plan
Correct Answer: B
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